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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):
NEW QUESTION # 17
A 43-year-old man is referred to you for an incidental finding of elevated hemoglobin. Laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin
185 g/L (130-170)
Mean corpuscular volume
92 fL (60-100)
White blood cells
7.8×1037.8×103 / L (4-10)
Platelets
250×103250×103 / L (130-400)
His BMI is 23. He has type 2 diabetes for which he takes gliclazide MR 60 mg daily. Which one of the following features on history could explain his laboratory abnormality?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Elevated hemoglobin in the absence of polycythemia vera can be due to secondary causes such as chronic hypoxia. Central sleep apnea, often associated with diabetes or neurologic conditions, leads to intermittent hypoxia and compensatory erythropoiesis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology and Respiratory Medicine, "Polycythemia" Section:
"Secondary erythrocytosis may result from hypoxic conditions including sleep apnea, COPD, or high altitude.
Assess for sleep-disordered breathing in patients with elevated hemoglobin and no myeloproliferative features." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Abnormalities):
"Candidates must investigate secondary causes of elevated hemoglobin, including hypoxia-related conditions." Hypertension (A), hypothyroidism (C), and cirrhosis (D) do not cause polycythemia. Alcohol (B) typically causes macrocytosis and anemia.
NEW QUESTION # 18
A 76-year-old man is brought by his family to your clinic with new-onset urinary incontinence. They state that the patient is experiencing a slowly progressing cognitive decline marked by memory disturbance, apathy, and attentional problems. Examination reveals that the patient has a stooped, forward-leaning posture and a wide-based gait. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient presents with the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH): gait disturbance (often wide-based and magnetic), cognitive decline, and urinary incontinence. The combination, especially with the gait being most prominent, is highly suggestive.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Geriatrics / Neurology:
"NPH presents with gait disturbance, dementia, and urinary incontinence. Gait is typically broad-based and magnetic. Imaging shows ventriculomegaly without elevated pressure." MCCQE1 Objectives (Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Disorders):
"Candidates must identify NPH and distinguish it from other dementias based on clinical triad and gait features." Alzheimer's (B) primarily presents with memory loss. Parkinson's (A) has bradykinesia and rigidity. Lewy body dementia (C) includes visual hallucinations and fluctuating cognition. FTD (E) has personality and behavioral changes.
NEW QUESTION # 19
You are counselling the wife of a 75-year-old man admitted under your care after a fall. The patient is confused, disoriented, barely sleeps at night and has complex visual hallucinations of animals running through his room. Given his state, which one of the following is the best advice for the wife?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This scenario describes acute delirium, common in hospitalized elderly patients. Patients may say things they don't mean. Reassuring family members not to take hurtful comments personally is an important part of family counseling.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Geriatrics, "Delirium":
"Patients may become agitated, hallucinate, or be aggressive. Families should be counseled not to take the behavior personally and continue to support orientation." MCCQE1 Objectives (Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Disorders):
"Candidates must support caregivers of delirious patients, providing guidance on managing emotional and behavioral symptoms." Avoiding visits (A), confronting the patient (C), or emotional withdrawal (E) are counterproductive.
Providing gentle information is appropriate (contradicts B).
NEW QUESTION # 20
A 19-year-old woman returns to your clinic to discuss her recent laboratory tests. She initially presented with dysuria, dyspareunia, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Her vulvovaginal examination was normal. Her last sexual encounter was 3 weeks prior to the onset of her symptoms. Which one of the following pathogens is most likely to explain this clinical presentation?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of cervicitis in young sexually active women and frequently presents with dysuria, dyspareunia, intermenstrual bleeding, and a normal vulvovaginal exam. It may be asymptomatic or have subtle signs and often affects the endocervix.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Sexually Transmitted Infections" Section:
"Chlamydia is the most common bacterial STI. Symptoms may include intermenstrual bleeding, postcoital bleeding, dyspareunia, mucopurulent cervical discharge, and dysuria. The vulva and vagina may appear normal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):
"Candidates should evaluate STI-related cervicitis as a common cause of postcoital and intermenstrual bleeding in young women." Other options:
* A. Actinomyces israelii is associated with IUD use, not relevant here.
* B. Herpes simplex virus usually presents with painful ulcerations, not abnormal bleeding.
* C. Treponema pallidum (syphilis) causes painless ulcers or systemic symptoms in later stages.
* D. HPV causes warts or asymptomatic cervical dysplasia, not acute symptoms.
NEW QUESTION # 21
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 0, comes to your office for contraception counselling, specifically about insertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device. She has a past history of breast cancer and is presently on tamoxifen. Which one of the following is the best advice for your patient?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (LNG-IUD) is generally contraindicated in current or recent breast cancer due to the progestin component, but may be considered in selectpatients on tamoxifen, especially if non-hormonal options are unsuitable. Consultation with the oncologist is required to evaluate risks and benefits.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Contraception in Special Populations":
"Levonorgestrel IUDs are generally avoided in patients with a history of hormone-sensitive cancers; however, decisions should be made collaboratively with oncology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-2: Contraception):
"Candidates must tailor contraceptive advice to patients with medical comorbidities, including cancer survivors." Irregular bleeding (A) is a common but not contraindicating side effect. No pre-procedure antibiotics (D) are typically needed. The IUD does not cause infertility (E). Risk of recurrence (C) is unconfirmed and must be individualized.
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NEW QUESTION # 22
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